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Case Discussion

Posted: 07 Sep 2012, 20:46
by walidhassabala
A 40-year-old man presents with testicular pain for
2 days and fever of 101°F. He also complains of
dysuria, but denies scrotal edema, flank pain, nausea,
or vomiting. Physical examination demonstrates
moderate tenderness with mild edema and erythema
in the scrotal area. Cremasteric reflexes are present
bilaterally. A testicular ultrasound is performed and
is negative for torsion. Which of the following is the
most likely etiology of the patient's symptoms?
(A) Viral
(B) Chlamydia
(C) N. gonorrhoeae
(D) E. coli
(E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Re: Case Discussion

Posted: 07 Sep 2012, 21:09
by ismailalamin
(B) Chlamydia

Re: Case Discussion

Posted: 08 Sep 2012, 21:17
by thuraiaibrahim
B) Chlamydia